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%[%0%#5)#R5)##5)$N#N##N#N#N#N#N#0%0%#N#N#N#%N#N#N#N#$ d Errata for 10th Edition of Exam FM/2 Manual
(Last updated 1/27/17)
[1/27/17] Note to students sitting for the June 2017 or later exam: The 11th and earlier editions of this manual are no longer suitable for these exams. A 12th edition that covers the new syllabus was published in January 2017.
[10/29/14] Note on changes in Learning Objectives and Text References:
Changes were made in the Learning Objectives and Text References for the October 2013 and December 2014 exams. The following terms were eliminated from the syllabus: (1) investment year allocation methods; (2) effective duration; (3) convertible bonds and mandatorily convertible bonds; (4) paylater strategies. Also, the term current value was added to the Learning Objectives. The effects of these changes on ASMs FM/2 manual are shown below under the items dated 10/29/14. ((There are also a couple of corrections of typos dated 10/29/14 which are unrelated to the above changes.)
[7/17/11] Important note on immunization! Students have reported that
there have been a surprising number of questions on immunization
(including the topics of duration and convexity) on recent exams. The
5 practice exams in this manual contain very, very few questions on
these topics. We suggest that you thoroughly review Sections 9c to 9n
before you take the exam.
[11/20/12] Page 21, Q. 5. Answer choice (B) should be 1414.
[4/28/10] Page 21, Q. 7. This problem should actually appear after Sections 1a(vi) to 1a(ix).
[11/20/12] Page 28. The Note at the end should refer to (1 + i)2n.
[11/20/12] Page 40, solution to Q. 6. Note that there is actually no need to explicitly calculate i/2. From
1000(1 + i/2)28 = 1,980, we have (1 + i/2)10 = 1.9810/28, X = 1000(1 + i/2)10 = 1000(1.9810/28) =
1,276.
[3/25/12] Page 57, solution to Q. 1. Add the following note after the solution: Some students interpret:
His account is credited with interest at a nominal rate of i convertible semiannually to mean that
Bruces account earns interest only at the end of each 6-month period. Therefore, they reason
that after 7.25 years, Bruce has only 100(1 + i/2)14 in his account. However, it is very important
to note that in Exam FM/2, an account is always assumed to grow with interest continuously, no
matter how the interest rate is stated (e.g., as an annual effective rate, as a nominal rate
compounded m-thly, as a force of interest, etc.). If there is an exception to this assumption, it
should be clearly stated in the question.
[7/17/11] Page 65, 3rd line from bottom, parenthetical remark. Should be (e.g., when (delta)t = .02t, as in
the above example).
[10/29/14] Page 71, solution to Q. 8. Add the following note at the beginning of the solution:
Note: Occasionally, you may see the term current value, as in this question. This simply means
the value of a series of payments on a specified date, some of which are made before that date
and some after that date. Thus, current value is the sum of the AV and PV of the payments on
the specified date.
[5/21/13] Page 86, diagram in the middle of the page. 3% applies to a period of of a year. (The arrows
make it appear as if 3% applies to of a period, which is of a year.)
[6/25/12] Page 99, solution to Q. 16, 2nd line. 100v should be 100v. The solution uses the correct
value.
[7/17/11] Page 119, solution to Q. 5. The first line of the solution was omitted: 14,113 = 1,000(a-angle-4N)
at 6.3%, 4N = 36, N = 9.
[7/17/11] Page 119, solution to Q. 7, 2nd line. R = 150.80 (based on the number of decimal places used),
not 150.08. The solution is based on the correct value.
[8/13/10] Page 136, solution to Q. 7. On the last line, the denominator should be 1 - .751315. The
answer is based on the correct denominator.
[8/13/10] Page 138, solution to Q. 19. The first line should say: Using time 39 as the comparison date.
The solution is based on time 39.
[8/13/10] Page 223, solution to Q. 11. The way the question is worded, the correct answer is (A), not (B).
As noted in the solution, the account balance at the end of the 8th year is $46,921.66. Just after
the 17th full scholarship of $5,000 is awarded, the account balance is equal to (46,921.66)(1.08)17
- 5,000(s angle 17) at 8% = $4,859.86. According to the question, if there is less than $5,000 in
the account at the end of any year, the remaining amount ($4,859.86) is immediately awarded as
a smaller scholarship. Thus, only 17 full scholarships of $5,000 are awarded. Note that the
account balance of $4,859.86 at the end of the 17th year would have grown to $5,248.65 at the
end of the 18th year at 8%. This would have permitted an 18th full scholarship to have been
awarded, but this would not follow the requirements of the question.
[10/29/14] Page 262, 3rd paragraph under the caption Yield Rate or Internal Rate of Return (IRR), 4th
sentence. Should be the present value of the returns of 500 and 800 decrease.
[10/29/14] Page 288. Investment year allocation methods are no longer included in the syllabus. Read
only the first 6 paragraphs of Section 5f and ignore the rest of this section (including the
questions at the end of the section).
[7/17/11] Page 302, first line under b. Using the TVM registers. 4,329.48 should be 4,329.38.
[3/25/12] Page 397, solution to Q. 9, last line. 1,088.27 should be 1,099.84.
[6/25/12] Page 424, solution to Q. 2, 1st line. The reference should be to Section 8(b), not Section 7(g).
[5/21/14] Pages 433-437. Since the 10th edition of this manual was published, the FM/2 exam committee
has adopted standard terminology for forward rates for exam purposes. (As noted on page 436
under Trap Alert! Warning on Terminology for Forward Rates!, the various Suggested
Textbooks use many different ways of describing the same forward rate. Thus, its a good move
on the part of the exam committee to finally specify standard terminology.)
This is how a forward rate is defined in Notation and terminology used for Exam FM/2
(available on HYPERLINK "http://www.BeAnActuary.org" www.BeAnActuary.org):
Forward rate: An m-year spot rate that comes into effect t years in the future will be
referred to as the m-year forward rate, deferred t years or as the m-year forward
rate, starting in t years.
Lets take an example. Suppose we are told that the 3-year forward rate, deferred 2 years, is
6% (or that the 3-year forward rate, starting in 2 years, is 6%). What this means is that we
could make an investment 2 years from now that would earn 6% per annum over the next 3
years (i.e., over the period from time 2 to time 5. Thus, if we were to invest, say, $10,500 at
time 2, we would have an accumulated value of 10,500(1.06)3 at time 5.
Lets take another example. How would you explain the following forward rate? The 2-year
forward rate, deferred 3 years is 4% (or the 2-year forward rate, starting in 3 years is 4%). This
means that we could make an investment 3 years from now that would earn 4% per annum over
the next 2 years, i.e., over the period from time 3 to time 5.
On pages 433 and subsequent in the manual, naturally we dont use the official terminology for
forward rates, since the 10th edition was published before this terminology was adopted. Now
that the exam committee has spoken, you should expect to see the new terminology on future
exams.
Very often, you will deal with forward rates that are in effect for only one year (i.e., forward rates
for which the m in the definition of a forward rate is equal to 1). For example, if 5% is the
one-year forward rate deferred 5 years, it means that we could make an investment at time 5 that
would earn 5% over the one-year period running from time 5 to time 6. (Note that this is the
same forward rate described in the third paragraph under Forward Rates on page 433, which
does not use the official terminology.)
You should learn how to determine forward rates from spot rates by reading pages 433-436 and
doing examples 6, 7 and 8 on pages 435-436. Although the official terminology is not used on
these pages, you should not have a problem understanding the concepts.
Keep in mind that you may have to modify questions on forward rates in the ASM manual in
terms of the official terminology. For example, see question 2 on page 439. The question asks
you to Calculate the one-year forward rate for year 2 (i.e., the one-year effective rate during year
2). While this is pretty clear, it would have been worded as follows using the official
terminology: Calculate the one-year forward rate, deferred one year. (or Calculate the one-
year forward rate, starting in one year.).
[7/17/11] Page 448, 8 lines from the bottom. Add the following sentence to the parenthesis: In fact,
in Notation and terminology used for Exam FM/Exam 2, which you can find on
HYPERLINK "http://www.BeAnActuary.org" www.BeAnActuary.org, the SOA/CAS says that, unless otherwise stated, duration means
Macaulay duration.
[7/17/11] Page 450, solution to (c), 3rd line. The reference to footnote 2 should be to footnote 3.
[7/17/11] Page 462, footnote 5. Insert the following sentence just after the 2nd sentence of the footnote:
In fact, in Notation and terminology used for Exam FM/Exam 2, which you can find on
HYPERLINK "http://www.BeAnActuary.org" www.BeAnActuary.org, the SOA/CAS says that, unless otherwise stated, convexity means
modified convexity.
[5/21/13] Page 454, solution to Example 1. The 2nd sentence should refer to Example 2, not Example 3.
[10/29/14] Page 474. Ignore Section 9n, since effective duration is no longer on the syllabus.
[7/17/11] Pages 488-489, What about interest? Note that the question of interest on the proceeds of a
short sale is still not covered by the Study Notes. However, in a reply to an email sent by a
student in 2010, the Education Staff noted that new exam questions will be based on McDonald,
which assumes that this interest is paid. A number of questions on the 5 practice exams in this
manual are based on the no-interest assumption. See the errata list below for pages 680 and
subsequent.
[7/17/11] Page 503, Fig. 11.2 and page 505, Fig. 11.3. The line showing the payoff on the long forward
should intersect the y axis at -104, not -100.
[8/7/13] Page 513, 6th line. Note that Bermudian is also spelled Bermudan.
[10/29/14] Page 567, solution to Q. 3. The Note should refer to Sections, 15a, 15b and 15c, not 6a,
6b and 6c.
[7/17/11] Page 588, The Asymmetric Butterfly Spread, 2nd line of Answer. Should say 75% of the
way from $90 to $110.
[7/17/11] Page 589, last line of Memory Alert!. The parenthesis should say: ($90 and $110), not
($90 and $100).
[7/17/11] Page 615, table at the top. The first 4 entries in the column headed Profit on 100-110 Collar
should end in .30, not .26 or .36. The next 3 entries in this column should end in .70, not .74. All
of the entries in the Combined Profit column should end in .30, not .26.
[10/29/14] Page 616. Ignore the material under the caption Paylater, since this is no longer on the
syllabus.
.
[4/28/10] Page 619, Q. 3. The problem should have made it clear that X and Y represent the highest and
lowest profit, respectively, if the puts are purchased.
[7/17/11] Page 648, the line just before Section 19d. The result of the calculation is $7.55, not $7.51.
[10/29/14] Pages 661 and subsequent (Practice Exams). Because the topic of investment year allocation
methods is no longer on the syllabus, ignore the following questions in the Practice Exams:
PE #1, Q. 22; PE #2, Q. 20; PE #3, Q. 8; PE #5, Q. 30.
[7/17/11] Page 663. We suggest that you do Practice Exams 4 and 5 first, since most students think they
are easier than Practice Exams 1 to 3.
[4/28/10] Page 674, last 2 lines. 1035.45 should be 1030.45. The final answer of 10.36 is correct.
[7/17/11] Page 680, Q.11, page 696, Q.7, page 712, Q. 23 and page 726, Q. 27. All of these questions
should say that you should assume that no interest is paid to the short-seller on the proceeds of
the short sale. Note that if this is not stated, you should assume that this interest is paid. (See
pages 488-489, What about interest?)
[7/17/11] Page 707, solution to Q. 34, 3rd equation. The number in the angle-bracket should be 282
(= 360 78), not 360. The result is based on the correct value.
[4/28/10] Page 711, Q. 15. The put options in this problem are priced incorrectly, since the premiums
should increase as the strike price increases. The solution is based on the premiums as shown.
[11/20/12] Page 715, last line. The symbol v.03 should be v.03.
[7/17/11] Page 725, Q. 19. The question should ask for the non-zero value of X.
[4/28/10] Page 725, Q. 20. The question should make it clear that the production cost of 17.50 is incurred
at the time of sale, i.e., one year from now.
[7/17/11] Page 726, Q. 23. The question should make it clear that the bond was originally purchased to
yield a minimum of 8%. Also, it should say that the bond matures at par in 30 years.
[8/13/10] Page 731, solution to Q. 17. On the last line, P should be equal to 122,215.3. The answer is still
(D).
[7/17/11] Page 732, solution to Q. 23. To find the price at which the bond was originally purchased to
yield a minimum of 8%, we must find the lowest price for all possible redemption dates. The
price assuming maturity at par in 30 years, as shown in the solution, is $943.711. If we assume
that the bond is called at $1,050 at the end of 6 to 29 years, the price would be greater than
$943.711. (This can be seen by looking at the premium/discount formula for the price, or by
a couple of trial calculations.) Thus, the original price was $943.711, as shown in the solution.
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